Which two options describe functions of the data center aggregation layer. (Choose two.)


Which two options are valid VTP commands. (Choose two.)


Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch. (Choose two.)


Which two options are multicast addresses. (Choose two.)


What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Nexus 7000 chassisfor N 1 redu ...


What layer of the OSI Model provides the logical addressing that routers use for path determination.


Which type of media uses electromagnetic waves that are generated by lasers, is often used in campusbackbones, an ...


A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file.Which command should be used to obtain the switch seri ...


A network design team has decided to use a standard protocol to consolidate the Ethernet and SAN datausing the ex ...


Which command set will create an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to permit only unencryptedWeb traffi ...


An administrator connected a new server to a Cisco MDs 9222i on Port FCL/20, but did not capture theworld wide na ...


Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL. (Choose two.)


Which Cisco UCS power policy mode enables a configuration that can tolerate the loss of an input powercircuit. ...


A network uses one pair of Layer 3 switches for core and distribution purposes.Which design is this network using ...


Which address type is used in IPv4 but is not used in IPv6.


Which two are functions of the data center access layer. (Choose two.)


What two technologies can be used to connect to storage arrays on a converged Ethernet/IP network. (Choose two.) ...


What describes how the 802.1Q protocol facilitates the transmission of multiple Layer 2 networks on asingle link. ...


An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to theconsole, and t ...


What native Fibre Channel technology facilitates connecting multiple Fibre Channel devices behind a singleFC addr ...


Which command should be used to determine which hosts are Fibre Channel targets.


At which layer of the OSI Model is TCP traffic encapsulated.


A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel.Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity. ...


Which two hosts are part of subnet 172.16.160.0/20. (Choose two.)


Which protocol is supported when OSPFv2 is used as the routing protocol.


Which is the maximum number of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis.


Which address and subnet combination is valid for a host assignment.


Which two statements about configuring VLANs on the Cisco Nexus 7000 platform are true. (Choose two.)


Which statement is true regarding FIP in FCoE enabled Storage Area Networks.


A customer requires two separate physical pathways between multiple initiators and multiple targets.Which technol ...


What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco passive Twinax cables.


Which situation will cause a switch to flood traffic out all of the ports on the switch.


Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model. (Choosethree.) ...


What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE ZX SFP transceiver when using ordinary singlemode fiber.


Which option includes the two devices that can be connected when a Cisco Fabric Extender Transceiver isused.


What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1.


Which option describes what a switch does after it learns that a host has connected to a switch port.


Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass through switch in NPV mode while maintainingFibre Chan ...


What are two physical components of the Cisco UCS B Series server. (Choose two.)


What two actions can be taken to enable inter VLAN communications in the data center. (Choose two.)


Which two options are file based storage protocols. (Choose two.)


A SAN administrator recently added a new zone to the VSAN 2 zoneset named zoneset2, but the server isstill unable ...


Switch A has BPDU filtering configured on all active interfaces. A second switch, Switch B, is connected toSwitch ...


What is the principle function of the data center core layer.


Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic fromany source ...


a network design team has mandated that IP only routing protocols be used in the network.Which two routing proto ...


An engineer implemented a new VSAN and examined the F mode trunks connecting an upstream switch.The engineer not ...


An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketingdepartment, VSAN 1 ...


Which two benefits are realized by deploying FCoE beyond the access layer. (Choose two.)


A network engineer is verifying Layer 2 connectivity of a server to a Cisco Nexus switch by checking theAddress R ...


Which two naming formats are used to identify an iSCSI node. (Choose two.)


Which two options are block based storage protocols. (Choose two.)


Which description of the AAA accounting feature is true.


On a Cisco Nexus switch, you need to configure an ACL that permits HTTP traffic only from network10.68.68.0/24 to ...


Which protocol data unit is associated with the link layer of the TCP/IP model.


Which communication type uses a one to many model to replicate packets that are delivered to manyinterested rec ...


Which two protocols are associated with the link layer of the TCP/IP reference model. (Choose two.)


Which protocol is used to encapsulate Fibre Channel frames, enabling them to be transmitted overEthernet networks ...


Which two descriptions of Fibre Channel WWNS are true. (Choose two.)


In HSRP, how do interfaces determine failure and assign standby and active routers.


How does a GLBP cluster respond to a host ARP request for the virtual IP address.


What happens when there is no entry in the Layer 2 CAM table that corresponds to the destination MACaddress of an ...


Which statement accurately describes the Single Initiator Single Target zone model.


When using HSRP or VRRP, what are the two states of the router interfaces that are ready to take overforwarding f ...


When you enter the feature npv command on a storage capable switch from Cisco, what is the result.


The nWWN is assigned to which SAN fabric component.


Which statement about SAN zoning is true.


In Fibre Channel networking, the FCID is composed of which of the following.


Which description of a FLOGI database is true.


The MAC address table on a Cisco Nexus Series switch is full. What layer 2 network behavior will occurwhile the n ...


Which description of a multiple initiator single target zone is true.


Which list contains the different methods of authorization that are used by AAA.


Which two are Fibre Channel topologies. (Choose two.)


To which component do you connect the Layer 1 port of a fabric interconnect.


Which characteristics of the n+1 power redundancy mode is true.


When the auto MDIX feature is disabled, which two network configurations require a crossover cable. (Choose two ...


Which block storage protocol can be used over an unlimited distance.


When comparing TCP and UDP segments, which two fields are found only in TCP segments. (Choosetwo.)


Refer to the exhibit. Which description of this core edge topology is true.


A network engineer examines a data capture and finds a large amount of traffic with the destination address of F ...


Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the configuration.


For which reason would you implement a VSAN.


Which OSI reference model layer provides flow control, sequencing, and acknowledgement acknowledgements.


In block level storage, SCSI commands are transmitted between which two devices. (Choose two.)


Which statement describes the use of zones in a VSAN.


What is the binary notation of the 192.168.3.24 IP address.


Which reason for configuring a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch in NPV mode is valid.


Which two descriptions of a FabricPath network are true. (Choose two.)


Which role type id the most trustworthy for a Cisco routing device.


Which advantage does the bidirectional Cisco QSFP 40 Gbps BiDi transceiver provide.


Refer to the exhibit. What is the result when you run the command.


Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the configuration is true.


Refer to the exhibit. Cisco UCS Manager generates a Call Home fault report. Which action do you take to resolve ...


Which two addresses are valid in the data link layer of the OSI reference model. (Choose two.)


Which two aspects are characteristic of Fibre Channel WWNs. (Choose two.)


Which two protocols can you use for SAN storage that is accessed via low latency, high bandwidth networking. ...


How many Fibre Channel zone sets can be active at one time for any given VSAN.


Which two descriptions of the WWWNNs on a server that has two physical HBAs are true. (Choose two.)


Which statement about First Hop Redundancy Protocols is true.


Which two descriptions of NPV are true. (Choose two.)


Refer to the exhibit. You want to restrict access from Host


Which two protocols operate at the data link layer of the OSI reference model. (Choose two.)


Which type of cable do you use with a Cisco QSFP 40 Gbps BiDi transceiver.


Which type of cable do you use to connect two Cisco Nexus switches that are 50 km apart.


Which purpose is a valid reason to change the mode of an interface to a TE Port on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series swi ...


An engineer has been tasked with implementing block based storage in the data center. Which protocol must the e ...


Before you configure an SVI on a Cisco Nexus Series switch, which command must you enter.


Which benefit does a VSAN provide.


Which statement about the HSRP protocol is true.


Which statement about FHRP protocols is true.


DRAG DROP Drag and drop each zoning description on the left to the correct type of zoning on the right. Select a ...


Which description of a vFC interface is true.


Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are represented.


In which layer of the OSI model are TCP port numbers defined.


Which two benefits of a single initiator single target zone are true. (Choose two.)


Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the output from SW2 is true.


Which two actions can access lists be used for. (Choose two.)


A switch receives a frame. The destination MAC address is located on the same port where the switch received the ...


Which two characteristics of IPv6 link local addresses are true. (Choose two.)


In Fibre Channel networking, the FCID is composed of which set of identifiers.


You need to implement QoS on a Cisco MDS Series Switch. Which type of traffic must you classify so that no frame ...


Which route type is the most trustworthy for a Cisco routing device.


What are two physical components of the Cisco UCS C Series server. (Choose two.)


DRAG DROP Drag and drop the FCoE protocols on the left to the correct descriptions on the right. Select and Plac ...


Which statement describes the AAA accounting feature.


On a Cisco Nexus switch, you need to configure an ACL that denies only SSH traffic from any source to host 10.68 ...


Which description of NPIV is true.


Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol is used to map an IP address by broadcasting a request to the LAN.


When a switch receives a frame which three variables are used to build the CAM table. (Choose three.)


Drag and drop each port description on the left to the port type on the right required to support it. Select and ...


View the Exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. Two Layer 2 Cisco Nexus switches are connected to application servers in ...


Refer to the exhibit. What type of network communication is depicted.